Original questions written against the published FINRA and NASAA exam content outlines — not actual exam questions. Every choice is explained.
A client inherits stock that the deceased originally bought for 20,000 dollars but was worth 90,000 dollars on the date of death. What is the heir's cost basis for tax purposes?
- A.0 dollarsInherited property has a basis equal to its date-of-death fair market value.
- B.20,000 dollars (the decedent's original cost)Step-up resets the basis; the original cost does not carry over.
- C.90,000 dollars (the date-of-death value)Correct — inherited property gets a stepped-up basis to fair market value at death.
- D.70,000 dollars (the built-in gain)The gain is not the basis; the stepped-up basis equals date-of-death value.
Why: Inherited property generally receives a stepped-up basis equal to its fair market value on the date of death — here, 90,000 dollars. If the heir sells at that price, there is no taxable gain.
A father gives his daughter stock he bought for $20,000 when it is worth $50,000. She later sells it for $65,000. Her taxable gain is:
- A.$65,000, because gifted stock has zero basisWrong. Carryover, not zero, basis applies.
- B.$15,000, using the $50,000 date-of-gift valueWrong-but-tempting. FMV-at-gift basis applies only to loss computations on depreciated gifts.
- C.$0, because gifts are never taxableWrong. The GIFT may be tax-free to her; the later SALE gain is fully taxable.
- D.$45,000, using her father's $20,000 carryover basisCorrect. Donor basis and holding period follow the gift.
Why: Gifted appreciated property takes carryover basis: $65,000 - $20,000 = $45,000 gain (holding period also carries over). The fair-market-value basis applies only for computing LOSSES on property gifted after it declined. Citation: IRC Sec. 1015. Takeaway: gifts = carryover basis for gains; step-up belongs to INHERITANCES.
When rebalancing a taxable account back to target weights, all of the following help minimize the tax impact EXCEPT:
- A.Directing new contributions to underweight asset classesIncorrect - using new cash rebalances without realizing gains.
- B.Harvesting losses to offset realized gainsIncorrect - loss harvesting reduces the taxable impact.
- C.Selling the largest long-term winners first to reach the target quicklyCorrect - this realizes large taxable gains, so it is the exception.
- D.Rebalancing within tax-advantaged accounts where possibleIncorrect - rebalancing inside tax-advantaged accounts avoids current tax.
Why: Selling large long-term winners realizes taxable gains, the opposite of tax minimization. Directing new cash, harvesting losses, and rebalancing inside tax-advantaged accounts all reduce the tax cost.
An investor buys an ORIGINAL ISSUE DISCOUNT municipal zero-coupon bond at issue and holds it to maturity. The accreted discount is:
- A.Tax-exempt interest that increases her basis to par by maturityCorrect. OID accretion on municipals keeps its tax-exempt character.
- B.Taxable ordinary income each yearWrong-but-tempting. Annual ordinary taxation describes CORPORATE zeros (and muni MARKET discount), not muni OID.
- C.A capital gain recognized at maturityWrong. Basis reaches par by maturity, so no gain arises.
- D.Deferrable until she sells the bondWrong. Accretion happens annually - it is simply tax-exempt.
Why: Original issue discount on a tax-exempt bond is treated as tax-exempt interest that accretes annually and increases basis, so redemption at par produces no taxable gain. Citation: IRC Sec. 1288 (OID on tax-exempts); contrast Sec. 1276 (market discount). Takeaway: muni OID = tax-free accretion; muni market discount = taxable.
5 questions in our bank involve Taxable Gain. Practise them with instant explanations.