Original questions written against the published FINRA and NASAA exam content outlines — not actual exam questions. Every choice is explained.
Precedent transaction analysis is best described as a valuation method that:
- A.Projects the target's own future free cash flows and discounts them to present valueWrong. That describes discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis, not precedent transaction analysis.
- B.Applies multiples observed in completed M&A deals for similar companies to the targetCorrect. This is the core method of precedent transaction analysis.
- C.Relies solely on the target's own historical stock price performanceWrong. Precedent transaction analysis looks at other companies' deal multiples, not the target's own trading history.
- D.Uses only the book value shown on the target's balance sheetWrong. Book value is an accounting figure, not a market-derived valuation multiple.
Why: Precedent transaction analysis derives valuation multiples from actual completed M&A deals for similar companies, applying those observed deal multiples to the target being valued.
"LTM EBITDA," as commonly used in a precedent transaction multiple, refers to:
- A.The trailing twelve months of reported EBITDACorrect. LTM means "last twelve months" — trailing actual results.
- B.The next twelve months of projected EBITDAWrong. That describes NTM (next twelve months), a forward-looking figure, not LTM.
- C.The average EBITDA over the company's entire operating historyWrong. LTM is a specific trailing twelve-month window, not a full-history average.
- D.The EBITDA reported in the company's most recent single fiscal quarterWrong. LTM covers twelve months, not a single quarter.
Why: LTM stands for "last twelve months" — the trailing twelve months of actual reported EBITDA as of the transaction (or analysis) date, as opposed to a forward-looking projection.
True or False: Precedent transaction analysis and comparable company analysis both rely on multiples derived from a peer set, but precedent transaction multiples are drawn from completed M&A deals while comparable company multiples are drawn from current public trading prices.
- A.TrueCorrect. This accurately distinguishes the two methods' data sources.
- B.FalseWrong. The statement correctly describes the distinction between the two methods.
Why: This correctly describes the core distinction: precedent transactions look backward at what acquirers actually paid to buy control of similar companies, while comps look at current minority trading prices for similar public companies.
A buy-side deal team produces preliminary stand-alone and pro forma valuations of the target using comparable company analysis, precedent transaction analysis and a DCF, rather than relying on just one method. What is the primary reason for using multiple methods rather than a single one?
- A.Each method measures a different valuation perspective, and together they produce a defensible range rather than a single potentially misleading numberCorrect. This is the core rationale for using multiple valuation methods together.
- B.FINRA rules require at least three valuation methods for every acquisitionWrong. There is no such FINRA numeric-method requirement; using multiple methods is standard practice, not a specific rule mandate.
- C.Multiple methods are used only to double-check for arithmetic errors in a single calculationWrong. The methods are conceptually distinct, not simply redundant checks on the same math.
- D.Only the DCF result is actually used; the other methods are performed for appearance onlyWrong. All the methods genuinely inform the valuation range and judgment, not just DCF alone.
Why: Each valuation method captures a different perspective — comps reflect current market sentiment, precedent transactions reflect control-premium deal pricing, and DCF reflects intrinsic value from projected fundamentals. Using several together produces a defensible valuation range and surfaces where the methods agree or diverge, rather than anchoring on a single, potentially misleading number.
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