Original questions written against the published FINRA and NASAA exam content outlines — not actual exam questions. Every choice is explained.
Free cash flow (FCF), as used in a DCF valuation, is most accurately described as:
- A.Net income reported on the income statementWrong. Net income includes non-cash charges and does not reflect capital expenditure needs the way FCF does.
- B.Cash generated from operations after deducting the capital expenditures needed to sustain and grow the businessCorrect. This is the standard definition of free cash flow used in a DCF.
- C.Total revenue less cost of goods soldWrong. That describes gross profit, not free cash flow.
- D.The cash balance shown on the balance sheet at year-endWrong. A cash balance is a stock (point-in-time) figure, not a flow of cash generated during the period.
Why: Free cash flow represents the cash a business generates from operations after accounting for the capital expenditures needed to sustain and grow the business — the cash actually available to all capital providers.
A single projected cash flow of $121 million is expected in exactly two years. Using a discount rate of 10%, what is its present value?
- A.$146.4 millionWrong. This multiplies by (1.10)^2 instead of dividing by it.
- B.$100 millionCorrect. $121M ÷ 1.21 = $100 million.
- C.$110 millionWrong. This only discounts for one year instead of two.
- D.$121 millionWrong. This is the undiscounted future value, not its present value.
Why: PV = FV ÷ (1 + r)^n = $121M ÷ (1.10)^2 = $121M ÷ 1.21 = $100 million.
True or False: Holding all projected cash flows constant, increasing the discount rate (WACC) used in a DCF will decrease the resulting present value.
- A.TrueCorrect. A higher discount rate reduces the present value of a given stream of future cash flows.
- B.FalseWrong. Present value and discount rate move in opposite directions, holding cash flows constant.
Why: Present value is inversely related to the discount rate — a higher discount rate divides future cash flows by a larger factor, reducing their present value, all else equal.
A buy-side deal team produces preliminary stand-alone and pro forma valuations of the target using comparable company analysis, precedent transaction analysis and a DCF, rather than relying on just one method. What is the primary reason for using multiple methods rather than a single one?
- A.Each method measures a different valuation perspective, and together they produce a defensible range rather than a single potentially misleading numberCorrect. This is the core rationale for using multiple valuation methods together.
- B.FINRA rules require at least three valuation methods for every acquisitionWrong. There is no such FINRA numeric-method requirement; using multiple methods is standard practice, not a specific rule mandate.
- C.Multiple methods are used only to double-check for arithmetic errors in a single calculationWrong. The methods are conceptually distinct, not simply redundant checks on the same math.
- D.Only the DCF result is actually used; the other methods are performed for appearance onlyWrong. All the methods genuinely inform the valuation range and judgment, not just DCF alone.
Why: Each valuation method captures a different perspective — comps reflect current market sentiment, precedent transactions reflect control-premium deal pricing, and DCF reflects intrinsic value from projected fundamentals. Using several together produces a defensible valuation range and surfaces where the methods agree or diverge, rather than anchoring on a single, potentially misleading number.
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