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Fully Paid Securities

Appears in our practice questions for: Series 24

Customer securities that have been paid for in full and, under SEC Rule 15c3-3, must be segregated in a good control location free of lien. A firm may not use, lend, hypothecate, or pledge fully paid securities without the customer's express written authorization.

Practice questions using Fully Paid Securities

Original questions written against the published FINRA and NASAA exam content outlines — not actual exam questions. Every choice is explained.

The firm's treasury function proposes pledging customers' fully paid securities as collateral for the firm's own bank line of credit. What must the principal do?

  1. A.Approve the pledge as long as the firm's treasury function documents the decision internallyWrong. Internal documentation does not make an otherwise prohibited use of customer securities permissible.
  2. B.Approve the pledge, since the securities are already in the firm's custodyWrong. Custody of the securities does not make them available to pledge for the firm's own obligations; fully paid customer securities are specifically protected.
  3. C.Prevent the proposed use of customer securities to secure the firm's own credit lineCorrect. Customer protection rules prohibit using customers' fully paid and excess-margin securities to secure the firm's own obligations.
  4. D.Approve the pledge only for customers who have not traded in the past six monthsWrong. Customer trading activity recency is not a basis for permitting this otherwise prohibited use of customer securities.

Why: Customer protection rules generally prohibit using customers' fully paid and excess-margin securities to secure the firm's own obligations. The principal must prevent this proposed use of customer securities.

A firm employee temporarily uses a customer's fully paid securities to cover the firm's own proprietary short position overnight, intending to return the position before it is noticed. Does the intent to return the securities, and the short duration, make this acceptable?

  1. A.Yes, since the securities were returned before any customer noticed a problemWrong. Intent to return the securities and the customer's lack of awareness do not make unauthorized use of customer securities acceptable.
  2. B.No, this is a serious violation requiring immediate correction and evaluation of escalation and reporting obligationsCorrect. Improper use of customer securities is a violation at the moment it occurs, regardless of duration or intent to return them.
  3. C.Yes, but only because the position was used overnight rather than for a longer periodWrong. Duration does not determine whether unauthorized use of customer securities is a violation.
  4. D.No, but the issue only needs to be addressed if it happens a second timeWrong. A single instance of improper use of customer securities is itself a serious violation requiring immediate action.

Why: No. Improper use of customer securities is a serious violation regardless of intent to return them or the brevity of the unauthorized use. The principal must treat this as a significant customer protection violation requiring immediate correction and evaluation of escalation and reporting obligations.

The firm's operations team argues that because a customer once told her representative verbally that the firm could "use her securities however it needs," no further restriction applies to how the firm handles her fully paid securities. Is this argument correct?

  1. A.No, permitted use of customer securities is governed by specific rules and documented consent requirements that a vague verbal statement does not satisfyCorrect. Customer protection rules are not something a firm can bypass based on an informal, undocumented verbal comment.
  2. B.Yes, but only because the representative, not the operations team, received the verbal statementWrong. Who within the firm heard the statement does not change the underlying analysis; the statement itself does not satisfy the required consent framework.
  3. C.No, but only because the statement was not made in the customer's native languageWrong. Language is not the relevant issue; the problem is the lack of a documented, rule-compliant consent, not a translation concern.
  4. D.Yes, a customer's verbal statement is sufficient authorization for any use the firm deems necessaryWrong. This accepts the flawed argument the question presents; a vague verbal comment does not waive structural customer-protection rules.

Why: No. Customer protection and hypothecation restrictions are not something a customer can waive through a vague, informal verbal statement. Any permitted use of customer securities is governed by specific rules and documented consent requirements, and a blanket verbal comment does not substitute for that.

A firm holds a large block of customer fully paid securities in street name at a custodian, registered in the name of a nominee that also holds the firm's own proprietary shares of the same security in the identical nominee position, with no internal sub-account ledger distinguishing which shares within that pool belong to customers versus the firm itself. Is holding the shares this way, without any internal distinction, an acceptable practice?

  1. A.Yes — street name registration through a common nominee is an accepted industry custody practice regardless of whether customer and firm shares are internally distinguished.Wrong. Nominee registration being an accepted practice does not eliminate the separate need for internal records distinguishing customer shares from firm shares.
  2. B.No, but only because customer securities should never be registered in a nominee's name under any circumstances, and must always be held in the customer's own name.Wrong. Nominee or street name registration is a normal and accepted custody practice, not itself impermissible.
  3. C.No — holding securities in street name through a nominee is a normal and permitted custody practice, but the firm still must maintain its own internal records clearly distinguishing which shares within that combined position belong to customers and which belong to the firm, since without that internal distinction the firm cannot demonstrate which shares are protected customer property if something goes wrong.Correct. Nominee registration is fine, but the firm still needs its own internal records distinguishing customer shares from firm shares within the pooled position.
  4. D.Yes, provided the custodian, rather than the firm, maintains records distinguishing customer shares from firm shares within the pooled position.Wrong. Relying entirely on the custodian's records does not relieve the firm of maintaining its own internal distinction as part of its own protection obligations.

Why: No. Holding securities in street name through a nominee is a normal and permitted custody practice, but the firm still must maintain its own internal records clearly distinguishing which shares within that combined position belong to customers and which belong to the firm, since without that internal distinction the firm cannot demonstrate which shares are protected customer property if something goes wrong.

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