Original questions written against the published FINRA and NASAA exam content outlines — not actual exam questions. Every choice is explained.
An investor exchanges a relinquished property with a $300,000 mortgage for a replacement property with only a $200,000 mortgage, receiving no cash in the transaction. What effect does this reduction in mortgage debt have on the exchange? (Figures are illustrative only.)
- A.None; only cash actually received counts as boot, and debt levels have no bearing on the exchange's tax treatmentWrong. Debt relief is treated as constructive boot even though it is not cash; it is not ignored.
- B.It disqualifies the entire exchange, since decreasing the debt on the replacement property is not permitted in a like-kind exchangeWrong. A decrease in debt does not disqualify the exchange; it is treated as boot, with the qualifying portion of the exchange still deferring gain.
- C.It increases the investor's carryover basis in the replacement property by $100,000 to compensate for the reduced debtWrong. Debt relief does not increase carryover basis; it is treated as boot that can trigger recognized gain.
- D.The $100,000 reduction in mortgage debt is treated as boot, potentially triggering recognized gain, even though the investor received no cashCorrect. The $100,000 reduction in debt is constructive boot, potentially triggering recognized gain despite no cash changing hands.
Why: Being relieved of mortgage debt in an exchange is treated as constructive boot, capable of triggering recognized gain just like receiving cash would, even though no cash actually changed hands.
As part of a Section 1031 exchange, the qualified intermediary's fee and standard closing costs are paid directly out of the exchange proceeds it is holding, rather than the investor paying them separately out of pocket. Does using exchange proceeds this way create boot?
- A.Yes -- any use of exchange proceeds for something other than purchasing the replacement property itself is boot, without exception.Wrong. Customary exchange-related expenses paid from the proceeds are a recognized exception, not treated as boot.
- B.Yes, but only the intermediary's fee is boot; standard closing costs are never treated as an issue regardless of how they are paid.Wrong. Both categories are generally treated the same way as non-boot exchange expenses; this invented distinction is incorrect.
- C.Generally no -- customary transactional expenses of the exchange itself, such as the intermediary's fee and standard closing costs, paid from the exchange proceeds, are not treated as boot, unlike using those same proceeds for some other, non-exchange purpose.Correct. Customary exchange expenses paid from proceeds are not treated as boot.
- D.No, but only if the investor first receives the proceeds directly and personally pays the expenses out of her own funds.Wrong. This describes the opposite of what protects the exchange; direct receipt of proceeds by the investor is what jeopardizes it.
Why: Customary transactional expenses of the exchange itself, such as the intermediary's fee and standard closing costs, paid from the exchange proceeds, are generally not treated as boot, unlike using those same proceeds for some other, non-exchange purpose.
As part of a Section 1031 exchange, an investor receives qualifying replacement real property plus a promissory note from the other party for a portion of the value difference, rather than receiving that portion in cash. The note calls for payments spread over the next several years. How may the gain attributable to that note portion of the boot be reported?
- A.It must be recognized entirely in the year of the exchange regardless of the note's payment schedule, exactly the same as if she had received the equivalent amount in cash at closing.Wrong. A note received as boot can potentially be reported under the installment method rather than recognized entirely in the exchange year.
- B.It is entirely tax-free because it was structured as a note rather than as cash, avoiding boot treatment altogether.Wrong. A note received as boot is still boot; the benefit is potential timing of recognition, not an exemption from boot treatment.
- C.It converts the entire exchange into an ordinary installment sale, causing the real property replacement portion to lose its Section 1031 deferral as well.Wrong. The qualifying real property portion retains its Section 1031 deferral; only the boot note portion is potentially eligible for installment reporting.
- D.The gain attributable to the note may potentially be reported under the installment method as payments are actually received over the note's term, rather than being recognized entirely in the year of the exchange, unlike boot received in the form of cash at closing.Correct. Note boot can potentially be reported under the installment method as payments are collected.
Why: The gain attributable to the note may potentially be reported under the installment method as payments are actually received over the note's term, rather than being recognized entirely in the year of the exchange, unlike boot received in the form of cash at closing.
An investor relinquishes property with a $400,000 mortgage and receives replacement property with a $350,000 mortgage. As part of the same exchange, she also pays $50,000 of additional cash to the other party. How does this cash payment affect the $50,000 reduction in her mortgage debt that would otherwise be treated as boot? (Figures are illustrative only.)
- A.It has no effect; mortgage relief and cash paid are evaluated completely separately, so she still recognizes boot on the full $50,000 debt reduction in addition to having paid $50,000 in cashWrong. Cash paid by the taxpayer nets against debt relief received rather than being evaluated as a fully separate item.
- B.The cash payment converts the mortgage relief from boot into additional deferred gain rather than netting against itWrong. The cash payment offsets the boot from debt relief directly; it does not recharacterize the debt relief into deferred gain.
- C.The mortgage relief instead offsets against the cash payment in the opposite direction, reducing the cash she is treated as having paid to zero while the full debt relief remains taxable bootWrong. This reverses which item nets against which; it is the cash paid that offsets the debt-relief boot, not the reverse.
- D.The $50,000 of cash she pays offsets the $50,000 of mortgage relief, netting the boot from debt reduction down to zeroCorrect. Cash paid by the taxpayer nets against mortgage debt relief, and here the two amounts fully offset, eliminating the boot.
Why: Cash paid by the taxpayer in the exchange nets against debt relief received, so the two can offset each other and reduce or eliminate the boot from the debt reduction.